You treat a 27-year-old infertile patient with bromocriptine. What should be the diagnosis?

Correct Answer: Hyperprolactinemia
Description: ANS. DClinical manifestations of hyperprolactinemiaWomenMen* Galactorrhea 30-80%* Galactorrhea <30%* Menstrual irregularity* Impotence* Infertility Other manifestations* Visual field abnormalities* Headaches* Extraocular muscle weakness* Anterior pituitary malfunctionHypogonadism in both women and men by suppressing gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRh) secretion and pulsatility, resulting in low level of LH and FSH.Medical therapeutic options for the management of hyperprolactinemia* Dopamine agonists are currently the first therapeutic option* Dopamine agonists have proven efficacy in reducing prolactin levels, restoring ovulation in premenopausal women and restoring gonadal function in men* Bromocriptine has been used the longest* Cabergoline has greater affinity and selectivity for pituitary dopamine D2 receptor and longer duration of action.
Share:

Get More
Subject Mock Tests

Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.

Attempt a mock test now
Mock Exam

Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.

Coming Soon
Get More
Subject Mock Tests

Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.

Attempt a mock test now
Mock Exam

Attempt an exam of 100 questions randomly chosen from all subjects.

Coming Soon
WordPress › Error

There has been a critical error on this website.

Learn more about troubleshooting WordPress.