You are called to a maternity ward to see a 23 year-old primi patient who had delivered a 2.7 kg baby boy 2 days back. She had a normal vaginal delivery and placenta delivered spontaneously. Now she complains of bloody vaginal discharge with no other signs. O/E you notice a sweetish odour bloody discharge on the vaginal walls and introitus. Sterile pelvic examination shows a soft nontender uterus. Her P/R-78/min, B/P-110/76 mm of hg, temp-37degC, R/R-16/min. Her WBC count = 10,000 with predominant granulocytes. What is the most appropriate step?
You are called to a maternity ward to see a 23 year-old primi patient who had delivered a 2.7 kg baby boy 2 days back. She had a normal vaginal delivery and placenta delivered spontaneously. Now she complains of bloody vaginal discharge with no other signs. O/E you notice a sweetish odour bloody discharge on the vaginal walls and introitus. Sterile pelvic examination shows a soft nontender uterus. Her P/R-78/min, B/P-110/76 mm of hg, temp-37degC, R/R-16/min. Her WBC count = 10,000 with predominant granulocytes. What is the most appropriate step?
💡 Explanation
You are called to a maternity ward to see a 23 year-old primi patient who had delivered a 2.7 kg baby boy 2 days back. She had a normal vaginal delivery and placenta delivered spontaneously. Now she complains of bloody vaginal discharge with no other signs. O/E you notice a sweetish odour bloody discharge on the vaginal walls and introitus. Sterile pelvic examination shows a soft nontender uterus. Her P/R-78/min, B/P-110/76 mm of hg, temp-37degC, R/R-16/min. Her WBC count = 10,000 with predominant granulocytes. What is the most appropriate step?
✓ Correct Answer: C. Reassurance
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