Medical MCQ-Which statement is true regarding genu varum (bowleg) -a) In infants, it may be considered normalb) Occurs due to epiphyseal dysplasiac) Seldom associated with tibial angulationd) Affects only tibia but nerve femure) Does not require any treatment

Which statement is true regarding genu varum (bowleg) -a) In infants, it may be considered normalb) Occurs due to epiphyseal dysplasiac) Seldom associated with tibial angulationd) Affects only tibia but nerve femure) Does not require any treatment

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Upto 11/2 years of genu varum is considered normal and persistent beyond 3 years is considered as pathological. The primary deformity in genu varum is lateral angulation of the knee and usually medial angulation of both femur and tibia. Epiphyseal dysgenesis can cause genu varum. Treatment depends upon the cause and the age of the patient.

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