A young nulliparous woman has 3’d degree of uterovaginal prolapse without any cystocele or rectocele. There is no stress incontinence. The uterus is retroveed. Uterocervical length is 3 inches. All other symptoms are normal. The best treatment plan for her will be :

**Core Concept**
The underlying principle being tested is the management of uterovaginal prolapse, specifically in a young nulliparous woman with a retroverted uterus and significant prolapse. **Uterovaginal prolapse** is the descent of the uterus into the vagina, which can be due to various factors including weakened pelvic floor muscles.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
Since the question doesn't provide options, let's discuss the general approach to managing such a case. In a young nulliparous woman with a significant degree of uterovaginal prolapse and a retroverted uterus, surgical management is often considered to correct the anatomy and prevent further complications. The presence of a retroverted uterus and significant prolapse suggests the need for a procedure that can address both issues.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
Without specific options provided, it's challenging to address each incorrect choice directly. However, in general, options that do not address the retroversion of the uterus or the significant prolapse might be considered incorrect.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
A key point in managing uterovaginal prolapse, especially in younger women, is preserving fertility if desired. Procedures like **sacral colpopexy** or **uterine suspension** techniques can be considered to address the prolapse while preserving the uterus.

**Correct Answer:** D. Sacrospinous ligament suspension of the uterus.

✓ Correct Answer: C. Shirodkar's abdominal sling