True about weber’s syndrome are all EXCEPT:
Weber's syndrome is a type of brainstem stroke, specifically a midbrain lesion that affects the oculomotor nerve (CN III) and the corticospinal tract. The classic presentation includes oculomotor nerve palsy (leading to ptosis, mydriasis, and eye deviation) and contralateral hemiparesis. So, the key features are ipsilateral oculomotor palsy and contralateral motor deficits.
If the question is asking which statement is NOT true about Weber's syndrome, the incorrect option might be something like "ipsilateral hemiparesis" instead of contralateral. Or maybe it's about the location of the lesion—like involving the pons instead of the midbrain. Another possible wrong answer could be attributing it to a different artery, such as the posterior cerebral artery instead of the paramedian branches of the basilar artery.
Wait, the correct answer is supposed to be the exception. So, the options might include statements that are false. For example, if an option says "Weber's syndrome is caused by occlusion of the anterior cerebral artery," that's incorrect because it's usually due to paramedian branches of the basilar artery. Also, if an option claims that the oculomotor palsy is on the same side as the motor deficit, that's correct, but if it's reversed, that's wrong.
Let me recall the standard features. Weber's syndrome involves the oculomotor nerve and the corticospinal tract in the midbrain. The lesion is in the tegmentum, so the CN III palsy is on the same side as the lesion, and the motor deficit is on the opposite side. If an option states that the motor deficit is on the same side as the oculomotor palsy, that's incorrect. Another possible wrong option could be if it's associated with a different syndrome like Millard-Gubler or Foville's.
So, assuming the correct answer is the one that contradicts these points, the exception would be the incorrect statement. For example, if an option says "Weber's syndrome causes ipsilateral hemiparesis," that's the exception because it's contralateral. Therefore, the correct answer here would be the option that states that.
**Core Concept**
Weber’s syndrome is a midbrain lesion involving the oculomotor nerve (CN III) and the corticospinal tract. It results from occlusion of paramedian branches of the basilar artery, causing **ipsilateral oculomotor palsy** (ptosis, mydriasis, down-and-out eye) and **contralateral hemiparesis**.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The hallmark of Weber’s syndrome is damage to the midbrain tegmentum. The oculomotor nerve (CN III) exits dorsally and is damaged in the same lesion that affects the corticospinal tract. This leads to **ipsilateral CN III palsy** (due to direct nerve injury) and **