A 22 year old pregnant lady presents with fever, and is put on antibiotics. Fever is still not brought under control, On fuher investigation she is diagnosed to have septic pelvic thrombophlebitis. Which among the following is the next coursee of treatment for her?

**Core Concept**
Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis is a rare but serious condition that occurs in pregnant women, characterized by the formation of a blood clot in the pelvic veins, often accompanied by infection. This condition requires prompt and aggressive treatment to prevent complications.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The next course of treatment for septic pelvic thrombophlebitis involves the use of anticoagulants to prevent the progression of the clot, and antibiotics to treat the underlying infection. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is often the preferred anticoagulant in pregnancy due to its safety profile and efficacy. In addition, the patient may require supportive care, such as pain management and hydration.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
* **Option A:** Anticoagulation with warfarin is generally avoided in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects and the risk of bleeding complications.
* **Option B:** Steroids are not typically used to treat septic pelvic thrombophlebitis, as they do not address the underlying infection or clot formation.
* **Option D:** Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) is a potential complication of heparin therapy, but it is not a contraindication to using heparin in this scenario.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
In pregnant women with septic pelvic thrombophlebitis, it is essential to balance the risk of anticoagulation with the risk of clot progression and pulmonary embolism. Low molecular weight heparin is often the preferred choice due to its safety profile and efficacy.

**Correct Answer:** C. Low molecular weight heparin

✓ Correct Answer: B. Antibiotics+Heparin