A 45 years old female patient presented painless supraclavicular lymphadenopathy. Biopsy revealed binucleated acidophilic owl eye appearance with floating lymphocytes in empty space, which was CD 15, CD 30 positive. What is the most probable diagnosis?

**Core Concept**
The question tests the ability to diagnose a specific type of lymphoma based on histopathological features and immunophenotyping. The **histological appearance** and **immunohistochemical markers** are crucial for distinguishing between different lymphoma subtypes.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The description of binucleated acidophilic cells with an "owl eye" appearance, CD15 and CD30 positivity, is characteristic of **Hodgkin lymphoma**, specifically the **classical type**. The presence of these markers, particularly CD15 and CD30, is highly suggestive of **Reed-Sternberg cells**, which are diagnostic for Hodgkin lymphoma.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Incorrect because it doesn't match the given description.
**Option B:** Incorrect as it lacks the specific markers and histological features mentioned.
**Option C:** Incorrect due to the absence of characteristic Reed-Sternberg cells and specific immunophenotype.
**Option D:** Incorrect because the clinical presentation and histopathological findings do not align with this option.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
The presence of **Reed-Sternberg cells** and the immunophenotypic profile (CD15 and CD30 positive) are key diagnostic features of **Hodgkin lymphoma**. Remembering these characteristics is crucial for accurate diagnosis.

**Correct Answer:** D. Hodgkin lymphoma.

✓ Correct Answer: B. Nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma