Which of the following statements about Cushing’s disease is true?
Now, the correct answer is likely to be the one that correctly identifies the cause. Let me think. The options aren't provided, but common true statements about Cushing's disease include that it's due to a pituitary tumor, which leads to increased ACTH, which then causes bilateral adrenal hyperplasia. The adrenal glands are responding to the excess ACTH, so they become hyperplastic, not atrophied. Also, treatment involves addressing the pituitary tumor, maybe with surgery like transsphenoidal resection.
For the incorrect options, common distractors might be: adrenal tumors (which cause Cushing's syndrome but not disease), ectopic ACTH production (like from small cell lung cancer), or exogenous steroid use. Another wrong option could be that the adrenal glands are atrophied, which would be the case in exogenous Cushing's due to long-term steroid use, not in Cushing's disease. Also, maybe an option stating that it's caused by a pheochromocytoma, which is a different condition.
Clinical pearls: Remember that Cushing's disease is ACTH-dependent, so the source is the pituitary. The classic clinical features include central obesity, moon face, buffalo hump, and purple striae. Diagnosis involves measuring cortisol levels, dexamethasone suppression tests, and imaging. The key differentiator from other causes is the source of ACTH. The high-yield fact here is that Cushing's disease specifically refers to pituitary-dependent cases, which is a common exam point.
**Core Concept**
Cushing’s disease is a *pituitary-dependent form of Cushing’s syndrome* caused by a **corticotroph adenoma** secreting excess **ACTH**, leading to bilateral adrenal hyperplasia and hypercortisolism. It differs from other causes of Cushing’s syndrome (e.g., adrenal tumors, ectopic ACTH, or exogenous steroids).
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The correct statement likely identifies the **pituitary adenoma** as the primary cause. ACTH from the adenoma stimulates both adrenal glands to overproduce cortisol, resulting in **bilateral adrenal hyperplasia** (not atrophy). Key diagnostic features include **failure of dexamethasone suppression** and **elevated ACTH levels**. Surgical removal of the pituitary tumor (transsphenoidal resection) is the first-line treatment.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** *“Adrenal atrophy is typical”* — Incorrect. Adrenal glands are **hyperplastic** due to chronic ACTH stimulation, not atrophic. Atrophy occurs in exogenous Cushing’s (e.g., from steroid use).