A 32-year-old female nonsmoker is admitted with a 5-wk history of intermittent hemoptysis. She denies any sputum production, fever, or repeated infections. There is no history of contact with TB. On physical examination, the patient is afebrile; she has dullness on percussion and decreased breath sounds in the LLL zone posteriorly. CV exam is normal. PPD is 4-mm induration. Bronchoscopy shows a polypoid lesion paially obstructing the left lower lobe orifice. This lesion bled easily during the procedure. Bronchial washings are negative for malignancy and the biopsy is pending. Chest x-ray is shown below.What is the radiological diagnosis?
A 32-year-old female nonsmoker is admitted with a 5-wk history of intermittent hemoptysis. She denies any sputum production, fever, or repeated infections. There is no history of contact with TB. On physical examination, the patient is afebrile; she has dullness on percussion and decreased breath sounds in the LLL zone posteriorly. CV exam is normal. PPD is 4-mm induration. Bronchoscopy shows a polypoid lesion paially obstructing the left lower lobe orifice. This lesion bled easily during the procedure. Bronchial washings are negative for malignancy and the biopsy is pending. Chest x-ray is shown below.What is the radiological diagnosis?
π‘ Explanation
**Core Concept**
The patient presents with hemoptysis, which is the coughing up of blood or blood-stained mucus, and a polypoid lesion obstructing the left lower lobe orifice. This clinical presentation, combined with the radiographic findings, suggests a diagnosis of a vascular lesion within the lung.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The patient's symptoms and findings are consistent with a pulmonary arteriovenous malformation (PAVM). A PAVM is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary arteries and veins, which can cause hemoptysis due to the high-pressure blood flow through the malformation. The polypoid lesion seen on bronchoscopy is likely a dilated pulmonary artery or vein within the malformation. The negative bronchial washings and biopsy results suggest that the lesion is not a malignancy.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
* **Option A:** This option is incorrect because a pulmonary embolism typically presents with sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain, and possibly hemoptysis, but the patient's symptoms have been intermittent over 5 weeks.
* **Option B:** This option is incorrect because bronchiectasis is characterized by dilated bronchi and chronic sputum production, which is not present in this patient.
* **Option C:** This option is incorrect because a lung abscess would typically present with fever, sputum production, and possibly a focal infiltrate on chest x-ray.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
PAVMs are often associated with hereditary hemorrhagic telangiectasia (HHT), a genetic disorder that can cause multiple PAVMs. Patients with HHT may present with recurrent hemoptysis, and the diagnosis can be confirmed by imaging studies or genetic testing.
**Correct Answer:** C. Pulmonary arteriovenous malformation.
β Correct Answer: B. LLL atelectasis
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