A 24-year-old man with a history of depression is brought to the emergency room because of a drug overdose. He is experiencing some nausea and vomiting, but no other symptoms. Physical examination and vital signs are normal. Six hours prior to presentation, he intentionally took 40 tablets of acetaminophen (500 mg/tablet). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

📤 Share this MCQ

VB
Vikas Bhardwaj
Medical Technologist, AIIMS New Delhi
Updated: Apr 16, 2026