A 72-year-old man presents to his GP with increasing dyspepsia and weight loss. He has not experienced any other GI symptoms and physical examination is unremarkable. A barium meal is performed with the administration of intravenous Buscopan. The oesophagus is normal in appearance but a ‘bull&;s eye’ lesion is noted in the gastric mucosa. Which one of the following is not a recognised cause of this appearance?

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Vikas Bhardwaj
Medical Technologist, AIIMS New Delhi
Updated: Apr 17, 2026