Okay, let's tackle this question. The patient is at 37 weeks with hypertension (BP 150/100) and 3+ proteinuria, which points to preeclampsia. The cervical exam shows she's in active labor? Wait, cervix is soft, 50% effaced, 1 cm dilated, station -2. So maybe she's early in labor. But preeclampsia complicates things.

First, the core concept here is managing preeclampsia with signs of impending labor. The main issue is whether to induce labor or wait. At 37 weeks, the baby is term, so delivery is an option. But the patient's condition needs to be stabilized.

The correct answer would likely be to induce labor because preeclampsia is a risk factor for eclampsia and other complications. If the cervix is favorable (soft, effaced, 1 cm), induction might be appropriate. However, if she's not in active labor yet, maybe they need to monitor and prepare for possible delivery. Wait, the cervix is 1 cm, so maybe she's in early active phase. But in preeclampsia, the risks of continuing pregnancy outweigh the benefits, so prompt delivery is indicated if the cervix is favorable.

Looking at the options, the most appropriate step would be induction of labor. Let me check the options again. The correct answer is probably C or D. Wait, the options aren't listed here. Hmm, but based on the scenario, the key is that with preeclampsia and a favorable cervix at term, induction is the next step. So the correct answer would be to induce labor. The other options might be things like monitoring, administering magnesium sulfate, or corticosteroids if preterm. But since it's 37 weeks, corticosteroids might not be needed. Magnesium sulfate is for seizure prophylaxis, but that's a separate step. So the main step here is induction.

**Core Concept**
This scenario involves a pregnant woman at 37 weeks with **preeclampsia** (BP ≥140/90 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria) and **cervical changes suggesting active labor** (soft cervix, 50% effacement, 1 cm dilation). The priority is balancing maternal and fetal risks to determine whether to induce labor or delay delivery.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
Preeclampsia is a hypertensive disorder of pregnancy that increases risks of eclampsia, HELLP syndrome, and placental abruption. At 37 weeks, the fetus is **term**, and maternal risks typically outweigh the benefits of prolonging pregnancy. A **favorable cervix** (Bishop score ≥8) supports induction. Immediate delivery is indicated to prevent maternal complications, making **induction of labor** the most appropriate step in this setting.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** *Observation without intervention* is incorrect because preeclampsia necessitates active management to prevent progression to severe complications.
**Option B:** *Administration of antihypertensives alone* does not address the underlying risk of preeclampsia and delays definitive treatment (delivery).
**Option D:** *Cesarean section

✓ Correct Answer: C. Induction of labour