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50405 Surgery

A 43-year-old man is seen in his physician’s office for severe pain in the perineum. Examination reveals exquisite tenderness in the area to the right side of the anal verge due to a perianal abscess. Rectal examination is refused. What should be the next step in management?

ADrainage of the abscess in the office under local anesthesia.
BExcision of the vertical fold of Morgagni.
CDrainage under general anesthesia and immediate colonoscopy.
DCT scan of the abdomen.
Surgery
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