Middle aged male presents with a scrotal swelling which has been present for previous 6 months. It shows positive fluctuation and the surgeon can get above the swelling. Which of the following is not to be done in the patient?
Correct Answer: Aspiration
Description: Ans. C AspirationRef: SRB: 5th ed. pg. 1072The clinical presentation is of a hydrocele. The key word is that surgeon can get above the swelling. The surgeries for hydrocele are-* Subtotal excision of sac* Jaboulay's Operation* Evacuation and Eversion* Lord's plication* Sharma and Jhawers Technique (After excision, the sac with the testis is placed in newly created pocket between the fascial layers of the scrotum).
Category:
Physiology
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