A 40-year-old female presents with multiple lytic bone lesions, fracture clavicle and periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 40-year-old female presents with multiple lytic bone lesions, fracture clavicle and periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
💡 Explanation
A 40-year-old female presents with multiple lytic bone lesions, fracture clavicle and periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals. What is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct Answer: B. Hyperparathyroidism
📤 Share this MCQ
Share Card Preview
👆 1080x1080 square card — fills the full width in WhatsApp and Telegram