**Core Concept**
The underlying principle being tested is the management of postmenopausal osteoporosis, focusing on the selection between **raloxifene**, a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM), and **hormone replacement therapy (HRT)** with conjugated estrogens and medroxyprogesterone acetate. This decision hinges on the patient's medical history and specific risk factors.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
Raloxifene is often preferred in patients with an intact uterus who are at risk for or have a history of **breast cancer** because it has been shown to reduce the risk of invasive breast cancer, similar to tamoxifen, another SERM. It also has a beneficial effect on bone mineral density without the increased risk of endometrial cancer associated with unopposed estrogen therapy.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** This choice is not provided, but typically, options that do not align with the risk profile or benefits associated with raloxifene would be incorrect.
**Option B:** Similarly, without the specific details, any option that does not highlight a contraindication to HRT or a specific benefit of raloxifene would be incorrect.
**Option C:** And any option that does not consider the patient's risk factors or the specific pharmacological profile of raloxifene.
**Option D:** Without specifics, it's assumed that any option not emphasizing the unique benefits of raloxifene over HRT in certain patient populations would be incorrect.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
A key point to remember is that raloxifene is particularly beneficial for postmenopausal women at risk for breast cancer or those who cannot tolerate the side effects of HRT, making it a valuable alternative for managing osteoporosis in these patients.
**Correct Answer:** Correct Answer: D. History of breast cancer.
Free Medical MCQs Β· NEET PG Β· USMLE Β· AIIMS
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