A G2P1L1 lady with previous LSCS comes at 37 weeks, with BP 150/100 mm Hg. CTG is reactive and her P/V findings are os closed, cervix partially effaced, soft, midline, Vx(-2) and pelvis is adequate. Urine protein by dipstick is (1+). What is the management?

**Core Concept**
The patient is presenting with symptoms of **pregnancy-induced hypertension** (PIH) and **proteinuria**, indicating possible **preeclampsia**. Management of preeclampsia involves careful monitoring of the mother and fetus to prevent complications.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
Given the patient's blood pressure and proteinuria, the management should focus on controlling blood pressure and closely monitoring fetal and maternal well-being. Since the cervix is partially effaced and the pelvis is adequate, **induction of labor** could be considered to reduce the risk of worsening preeclampsia. The reactive CTG suggests that the fetus is not currently distressed, supporting the option for induction.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Incorrect because immediate **cesarean section** is not necessary unless there are signs of fetal distress or severe preeclampsia with eclampsia.
**Option B:** Incorrect as **expectant management** may not be appropriate given the patient's condition and the potential for preeclampsia to worsen.
**Option C:** Incorrect because **termination of pregnancy** is already implied as the patient is being considered for delivery, but the method (induction vs. cesarean) is what's in question.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
In a patient with preeclampsia, especially at term, delivery is the definitive treatment. The method of delivery (vaginal or cesarean) depends on the usual obstetric indications, including fetal distress, cervical favorability, and pelvic adequacy.

**Correct Answer:** D. Induction of labor.

✓ Correct Answer: B. Induction of labor