A 74-year-old woman has a 10-year history of intermittent lower abdominal pain. The pain has been colicky in nature and is associated with a feeling of distension in the left iliac fossa. It is generally relieved by-passing flatus or faeces. She tends to be constipated and passes small pieces of faeces. On examination, vague impression of a mass was felt in the left iliac fossa with no guarding or rebound tenderness and the bowel sounds were normal. She had a barium enema performed. An intestinal biopsy was also performed. Colonoscopy ruled any colonic neoplasm. Which of the following procedures can be used in the above condition: –
A 74-year-old woman has a 10-year history of intermittent lower abdominal pain. The pain has been colicky in nature and is associated with a feeling of distension in the left iliac fossa. It is generally relieved by-passing flatus or faeces. She tends to be constipated and passes small pieces of faeces. On examination, vague impression of a mass was felt in the left iliac fossa with no guarding or rebound tenderness and the bowel sounds were normal. She had a barium enema performed. An intestinal biopsy was also performed. Colonoscopy ruled any colonic neoplasm. Which of the following procedures can be used in the above condition: –
💡 Explanation
**Core Concept**
The clinical presentation suggests a diagnosis of **diverticulitis** or **diverticulosis**, given the history of intermittent lower abdominal pain, colicky nature, and relief with passing flatus or feces. The presence of a mass in the left iliac fossa with no guarding or rebound tenderness also points towards this diagnosis.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The correct answer is related to the management of **diverticular disease**. Given the chronic nature of the symptoms and the presence of a mass, a procedure that can help in relieving the symptoms and preventing further complications is needed.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Not provided, hence cannot be commented upon.
**Option B:** Not provided, hence cannot be commented upon.
**Option C:** Not provided, hence cannot be commented upon.
**Option D:** Not provided, hence cannot be commented upon.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
A key point to remember is that **diverticulitis** typically presents with more severe symptoms, including high fever, significant abdominal tenderness, and possible signs of peritonitis, whereas **diverticulosis** may be asymptomatic or have milder symptoms.
**Correct Answer:** D. Colectomy
✓ Correct Answer: D. All of the above
📤 Share this MCQ
Share Card Preview
👆 1080x1080 square card — fills the full width in WhatsApp and Telegram