A 24-year-old man complains of progressive intermittent claudication of the left leg. On examination, the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are normal; but they disappear on dorsiflexion of the foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A 24-year-old man complains of progressive intermittent claudication of the left leg. On examination, the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are normal; but they disappear on dorsiflexion of the foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?
💡 Explanation
A 24-year-old man complains of progressive intermittent claudication of the left leg. On examination, the popliteal, dorsalis pedis, and posterior tibial pulses are normal; but they disappear on dorsiflexion of the foot. What is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct Answer: D. Popliteal artery entrapment syndrome
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