A 54-year-old woman presented with left-sided hemiparesis thati s completely resolved . The risk of future stroke is determined by ______ score.
**Core Concept**
The **modified Rankin Scale (mRS)** is used to assess the outcome of ischemic stroke, but the question is referring to stroke risk assessment. The underlying principle being tested is the need to identify a scoring system that predicts the likelihood of future stroke in a patient who has already experienced a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or ischemic stroke.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The correct answer is the **ABCD2 score**, which is a clinical prediction rule used to estimate the likelihood of a patient experiencing a future stroke after a TIA. The ABCD2 score takes into account five variables: Age, Blood pressure, Clinical features (unilateral weakness, speech disturbance), Duration of symptoms, and Diabetes. Each variable contributes a point, with a maximum score of 7. A higher score indicates a higher risk of stroke.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
* **Option A:** This is incorrect because the modified Rankin Scale (mRS) is used to assess the outcome of ischemic stroke, not to predict future stroke risk.
* **Option B:** This is incorrect because the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) is used to assess the severity of acute ischemic stroke, not to predict future stroke risk.
* **Option C:** This is incorrect because the TOAST criteria are used to classify the causes of ischemic stroke, not to predict future stroke risk.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
The ABCD2 score is a useful tool for clinicians to assess the risk of future stroke in patients who have experienced a TIA or ischemic stroke. A score of 0-3 suggests a low risk of stroke, while a score of 4-6 suggests a moderate risk, and a score of 7 suggests a high risk.
**Correct Answer:** D. ABCD2 score.