A 7 year old boy presents to the OPD with a painless limp. On examination, you observe that abduction and internal rotation of left hip are restricted. While attempting to flex the hip, the knee goes toward axilla. What is your probable diagnosis?

**Core Concept**
The clinical presentation suggests a hip disorder, likely related to **Perthes disease** or **Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)**, given the age and symptoms of the patient. The restriction in abduction and internal rotation, along with the specific gait abnormality, points towards a condition affecting the hip joint.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
Given the age of the patient and the specific symptoms such as a painless limp, restriction in abduction and internal rotation, and the characteristic movement of the knee towards the axilla upon hip flexion, **Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)** is a strong consideration. SCFE is characterized by the displacement of the femoral epiphysis from the femoral neck through the physeal plate, leading to these specific clinical findings.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Would be incorrect as it doesn't match the specific clinical scenario described.
**Option B:** Might be considered for other hip pathologies but doesn't fit the specific pattern of restricted movements and gait abnormality seen in SCFE.
**Option C:** Could be a possibility in other hip conditions but doesn't align with the described clinical presentation.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
Remember, SCFE typically presents in early adolescence with a painless limp and specific restrictions in hip movement. The condition requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent long-term complications such as osteoarthritis.

**Correct Answer:** D. Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE)

✓ Correct Answer: D. Pehes disease