A 24-year-old woman with 36 weeks of pregnancy, suddenly complains of headache and blurring of vision. Her B.P. is 170/110 mm of Hg. Urinary albumin is +++ and fundus examination shows areas of retinal hemorrhage. The line of fuher management would be:

**Core Concept**
The clinical presentation suggests **preeclampsia**, a pregnancy complication characterized by **hypertension** and **proteinuria**. This condition can lead to **eclampsia**, a severe form of the disease involving seizures. The patient's symptoms, including **headache**, **blurring of vision**, and **retinal hemorrhage**, are indicative of severe preeclampsia.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The correct management of severe preeclampsia involves immediate **lowering of blood pressure** and **delivery of the fetus**, as the condition poses significant risks to both the mother and the baby. The presence of **retinal hemorrhage** and **high blood pressure** necessitates prompt intervention to prevent further complications, such as **stroke** or **eclampsia**.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Incorrect because it may not be the immediate step in management.
**Option B:** Incorrect as it may not address the urgency of the situation.
**Option C:** Incorrect because, although important, it may not be the primary step in managing severe preeclampsia.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect (Continued)**
**Option D:** Incorrect as it is the correct answer choice that is missing.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
In cases of severe preeclampsia, **delivery of the fetus** is often the definitive treatment, as it can help resolve the condition. It is crucial to closely monitor the patient's blood pressure and watch for signs of **eclampsia**.

**Correct Answer:** Correct Answer: D. Immediate delivery and control of blood pressure.

✓ Correct Answer: A. Conservative treatment