A 42-year-old woman presents with a swollen, painful, erythematous left breast which does not respond to a 10-day course of oxacillin. Ultrasound reveals no abscess. The next step in management should be:
A 42-year-old woman presents with a swollen, painful, erythematous left breast which does not respond to a 10-day course of oxacillin. Ultrasound reveals no abscess. The next step in management should be:
π‘ Explanation
A 42-year-old woman presents with a swollen, painful, erythematous left breast which does not respond to a 10-day course of oxacillin. Ultrasound reveals no abscess. The next step in management should be:
β Correct Answer: D. Biopsy the skin and parenchyma of the breast
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