**Core Concept**
Cryptococcal meningitis is a serious fungal infection caused by Cryptococcus neoformans, typically affecting immunocompromised individuals, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Effective treatment involves antifungal medications that target the fungal cell membrane and inhibit its growth.

**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The correct answer is Fluconazole, an azole antifungal that inhibits the enzyme lanosterol 14α-demethylase, leading to a deficiency in ergosterol, a critical component of the fungal cell membrane. This disrupts the cell membrane's integrity and ultimately kills the fungus. Fluconazole is the preferred first-line treatment for cryptococcal meningitis due to its efficacy and relatively favorable side effect profile.

**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Amphotericin B is a polyene antifungal, which is effective against Cryptococcus neoformans but is typically reserved for severe cases or as an adjunct therapy. It works by binding to ergosterol in the fungal cell membrane, causing pore formation and cell lysis.
**Option B:** Griseofulvin is an antifungal that targets microtubule function, inhibiting fungal cell division. It is primarily used to treat dermatophyte infections, such as ringworm, and is not effective against Cryptococcus neoformans.
**Option C:** Itraconazole is another azole antifungal that has a broader spectrum of activity than Fluconazole, including against Aspergillus and dermatophytes. However, it is not the preferred treatment for cryptococcal meningitis due to its potential for liver toxicity and interactions with other medications.

**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
When treating cryptococcal meningitis, it is essential to monitor for complications, such as raised intracranial pressure and seizures, and to adjust antifungal therapy accordingly. Additionally, HIV-infected patients may require combination antiretroviral therapy to restore immune function and prevent recurrence.

**Correct Answer: A. Amphotericin B.**