A man presented with a 3 day H/o lacrimation redness and discharge from left eye. Later on he developed perforation. Discharge from his eye demonstrated gram negative cocci which were oxidase positive. Which of the following can be the probable organism?
**Core Concept**
The patient's symptoms and the microbiological findings suggest an infection caused by a gram-negative coccus, which is oxidase-positive. This indicates the presence of a bacterium that belongs to the family Neisseriaceae.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The organism in question is likely to be *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, which is a gram-negative diplococcus. It is oxidase-positive and is known to cause gonococcal conjunctivitis, a condition characterized by lacrimation, redness, and discharge from the eye. The development of perforation is a complication of untreated gonococcal conjunctivitis. *Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is a sexually transmitted pathogen that can also cause conjunctivitis in newborns, known as ophthalmia neonatorum.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
* **Option A:** *Streptococcus pneumoniae* is a gram-positive diplococcus, not gram-negative. Therefore, it does not match the patient's microbiological findings.
* **Option B:** *Haemophilus influenzae* is a gram-negative coccobacillus, not a gram-negative coccus. It is also oxidase-negative, which does not match the patient's microbiological findings.
* **Option C:** *Moraxella catarrhalis* is a gram-negative coccus, but it is oxidase-positive and does not typically cause severe conjunctivitis. It is more commonly associated with respiratory tract infections.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
*Neisseria gonorrhoeae* is a sexually transmitted pathogen that can cause severe conjunctivitis in adults and ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns. It is essential to consider gonococcal conjunctivitis in patients with severe eye symptoms and to perform microbiological tests to confirm the diagnosis.
**Correct Answer:** C.