A 58-year-old woman has a history of alcohol abuse, coronary artery disease, and atrial fibrillation. Her medications include metoprolol, lisinopril, simvastatin, and warfarin. She develops urinary urgency and frequency and is treated with oxycodone and ciprofloxacin. Three days later she develops a headache, dizziness, vomiting, and has difficulty walking. On neurological examination her strength, sensation (including vibratory sensation), and reflexes are normal. She walks with an uncoordinated, unsteady gait. On testing of coordination in the upper extremities, she displays past pointing and poor rapid alternating movements with her right upper extremity. In the lower extremities, her heel-shin testing also reveals poor coordination on the right. INR is 6.5 (normal <1, therapeutic for warfarin 2.0-3.0). What is the most likely cause of her neurologic findings?
A 58-year-old woman has a history of alcohol abuse, coronary artery disease, and atrial fibrillation. Her medications include metoprolol, lisinopril, simvastatin, and warfarin. She develops urinary urgency and frequency and is treated with oxycodone and ciprofloxacin. Three days later she develops a headache, dizziness, vomiting, and has difficulty walking. On neurological examination her strength, sensation (including vibratory sensation), and reflexes are normal. She walks with an uncoordinated, unsteady gait. On testing of coordination in the upper extremities, she displays past pointing and poor rapid alternating movements with her right upper extremity. In the lower extremities, her heel-shin testing also reveals poor coordination on the right. INR is 6.5 (normal <1, therapeutic for warfarin 2.0-3.0). What is the most likely cause of her neurologic findings?
💡 Explanation
**Core Concept**
The question tests the student's understanding of the effects of warfarin toxicity on the central nervous system, particularly cerebellar dysfunction. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that inhibits vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, but high levels can also cause neurotoxicity.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The patient's symptoms of headache, dizziness, vomiting, and difficulty walking, along with the abnormal gait and coordination tests, suggest cerebellar dysfunction. Warfarin toxicity is known to cause cerebellar degeneration, leading to ataxia, dysarthria, and other coordination problems. The INR of 6.5 is significantly elevated, indicating warfarin toxicity. The cerebellum is particularly vulnerable to warfarin's effects due to its high concentration of vitamin K-dependent proteins.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
* **Option A:** Alcohol abuse is a contributing factor to the patient's overall health status, but it is not directly related to her current neurological symptoms.
* **Option B:** Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, is used to treat hypertension and coronary artery disease, but it is not associated with cerebellar dysfunction.
* **Option C:** Ciprofloxacin, an antibiotic, can cause various side effects, including central nervous system effects, but it is not the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
Warfarin toxicity can cause a range of symptoms, including neurotoxicity, and is often underdiagnosed. Monitoring INR levels and adjusting warfarin dosages accordingly can prevent toxicity.
**Correct Answer: C. Cerebellar dysfunction due to warfarin toxicity.
✓ Correct Answer: A. Right cerebellar hemorrhage
📤 Share this MCQ
Share Card Preview
👆 1080x1080 square card — fills the full width in WhatsApp and Telegram