A 11-year-old boy came with history of cough for 15 days. On examination he was found to have cervical lymphadenopathy. The lymph node biopsy is shown below. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
**Core Concept**
The question is testing the student's ability to identify a specific type of lymphoma based on histopathological findings. The underlying concept is the distinction between different types of non-Hodgkin lymphoma (NHL) and their characteristic features.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The lymph node biopsy likely shows a mixture of lymphocytes and plasma cells, with a background of reactive lymphoid follicles. This is consistent with a diagnosis of **Burkitt lymphoma**, a high-grade B-cell lymphoma characterized by a specific translocation involving the MYC gene. The presence of cervical lymphadenopathy and a long history of cough suggest lymphoma as a possible cause, and the histopathological features are consistent with Burkitt lymphoma.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
* **Option A:** This option is likely a distractor, as the histopathological features described do not match the typical presentation of **Follicular lymphoma**, which is a different type of NHL.
* **Option B:** **Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma** is another type of NHL, but the presence of reactive lymphoid follicles and a mixture of lymphocytes and plasma cells is not typical for this diagnosis.
* **Option C:** **Hodgkin lymphoma** is a different type of lymphoma, characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are not described in the biopsy findings.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
Burkitt lymphoma is a highly aggressive type of lymphoma that requires prompt treatment. It is often associated with a characteristic translocation involving the MYC gene, and the presence of this translocation can be used as a diagnostic marker.
**Correct Answer:** C.