A 32-year-old primi gravida presents with DVT. There is history of 2 episodes of DVT in the past and was diagnosed to have antiphospoholipid antibody. Next step in management is:
**Core Concept**
Antiphospholipid syndrome (APS) is a condition characterized by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies, leading to a hypercoagulable state and increased risk of thrombosis. In pregnant women, APS can cause recurrent miscarriages and fetal losses due to placental insufficiency.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
In patients with APS, the next step in management is to initiate anticoagulation therapy to prevent further thrombotic events. Low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) is a commonly used anticoagulant in pregnancy due to its safety profile and ease of administration. Warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects, and aspirin is often added as an adjunct to anticoagulation therapy in patients with APS.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** This option is incorrect as warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects.
**Option B:** This option is incorrect as aspirin is an adjunct to anticoagulation therapy, not a primary treatment for APS.
**Option C:** This option is incorrect as anticoagulation therapy is the mainstay of treatment in APS, not supportive care.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
In patients with APS, it is essential to monitor for signs of thrombosis, such as leg swelling, shortness of breath, or chest pain, and to initiate anticoagulation therapy promptly if a new thrombotic event occurs.
**Correct Answer:** C.