**Core Concept**
Uterine fibroids are benign tumors arising from the smooth muscle layer of the uterus, often causing symptoms like menorrhagia and recurrent abortions due to their location and size. The management of fibroids depends on their size, location, and the patient's age and desire for future fertility.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
The presence of two sub-serosal fibroids on the anterior wall of the uterus and fundus in a 30-year-old woman with recurrent abortions and menorrhagia suggests that these fibroids are likely contributing to her symptoms. In this scenario, the best line of management would be to consider a surgical option like myomectomy, which allows for the removal of the fibroids while preserving the uterus and fertility. This is particularly important in a young woman who may still wish to conceive in the future.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Medical management with hormonal therapy may provide temporary relief from symptoms but is not a definitive treatment and may not address the underlying issue of recurrent abortions.
**Option B:** Hysterectomy is a definitive treatment for fibroids but is generally reserved for older women who have completed their family or have other indications for removal of the uterus.
**Option C:** Observation alone may not be the best approach in this case, given the patient's symptoms and the potential impact of the fibroids on her fertility.
**Clinical Pearl / High-Yield Fact**
When managing fibroids in young women, it's essential to consider the patient's desire for future fertility and to choose a treatment option that preserves the uterus and ovarian function.
**Correct Answer: C. Observation alone may not be the best approach in this case, given the patient's symptoms and the potential impact of the fibroids on her fertility.**
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