Action of i. v. thiopentone is terminated by –
The core concept here is the pharmacokinetics of thiopentone. Since it's a barbiturate, it's lipid-soluble, which allows it to cross the blood-brain barrier quickly. But how does its effect wear off? I remember that barbiturates are distributed into tissues and then metabolized. Thiopentone has a high lipid solubility, so after binding to GABA receptors and causing CNS depression, the drug redistributes from the brain to other tissues like fat. This redistribution is a key factor in the termination of its action. So the body's redistribution plays a bigger role than metabolism or excretion in terminating the effect.
Wait, but some sources might mention metabolism. Thiopentone is metabolized in the liver by hepatic enzymes, but the primary reason for the termination of its action is redistribution. The half-life is mainly determined by redistribution. So the correct answer would be redistribution.
Looking at the options, even though the user didn't list them, typical distractors might include metabolism, excretion, autoinhibition, or protein binding. Let's say the options are A. Metabolism, B. Excretion, C. Redistribution, D. Autoinhibition. Then the correct answer is C.
Now, why are the others wrong? Metabolism (A) is a minor factor because thiopentone is not rapidly metabolized. Excretion (B) is slow since it's water-soluble only after metabolism, so excretion isn't the main way. Autoinhibition (D) isn't a thing for thiopentone. So the key point is redistribution. The clinical pearl is that redistribution is the main termination mechanism for thiopentone, unlike other barbiturates which might rely more on metabolism. So the correct answer is C.
**Core Concept**
Thiopentone, a short-acting barbiturate, terminates its action primarily through **redistribution** from the central nervous system (CNS) to peripheral tissues. Its high lipid solubility allows rapid equilibration between brain and other lipid-rich tissues, ending CNS depression before significant metabolism or excretion occurs.
**Why the Correct Answer is Right**
Thiopentone’s action ends as it redistributes from the brain to adipose tissue and muscle due to its lipophilic nature. This redistribution occurs within minutes, far quicker than hepatic metabolism or renal excretion. The drug’s context-sensitive half-time is short because the body rapidly “steals” it from the CNS, making metabolism (via hepatic CYP enzymes) and excretion secondary to termination.
**Why Each Wrong Option is Incorrect**
**Option A:** Metabolism contributes minimally. Thiopentone is partially metabolized by the liver, but this is not the primary termination mechanism.
**Option B:** Excretion is negligible. The drug is too lipid-soluble to be excreted unchanged in urine.
**Option D:** Autoinhibition is not a recognized mechanism for thiopentone.