A 58-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease, and a recent heart attack suddenly develops painless hematuria. He subsequently suffers a massive stroke and expires. The patient’s kidney at autopsy is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A 58-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease, and a recent heart attack suddenly develops painless hematuria. He subsequently suffers a massive stroke and expires. The patient’s kidney at autopsy is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
💡 Explanation
A 58-year-old man with a history of coronary artery disease, peripheral vascular disease, and a recent heart attack suddenly develops painless hematuria. He subsequently suffers a massive stroke and expires. The patient's kidney at autopsy is shown. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
✓ Correct Answer: D. Cortical infarct
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