A 49-year-old woman has had a severe headache for 2 days. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive. Funduscopic examination shows papilledema on the right. One day later, she has the right pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement. She then becomes obtunded. Which of the following lesions best explains these findings?
A 49-year-old woman has had a severe headache for 2 days. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive. Funduscopic examination shows papilledema on the right. One day later, she has the right pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement. She then becomes obtunded. Which of the following lesions best explains these findings?
💡 Explanation
A 49-year-old woman has had a severe headache for 2 days. On physical examination, she is afebrile and normotensive. Funduscopic examination shows papilledema on the right. One day later, she has the right pupillary dilation and impaired ocular movement. She then becomes obtunded. Which of the following lesions best explains these findings?
✓ Correct Answer: C. Glioblastoma with edema
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