A 46-year-old man has mild renal failure and hypeension which is proving difficult to manage. CT scan shows both a small adrenal tumor and bilateral hyperplasia. Which of the following is the best test to make a definitive diagnosis?
Correct Answer: Selective adrenal vein sampling
Description: Option A- Useful for diagnosis of Cushing syndrome Option B- Used for the diagnosis of Pheochromocytoma (which doesn't have renal failure) C/P given as B/L hyperplasia + Small adrenal tumor = ADRENAL ADENOMA (cause of Conn's Syndrome) Option C- Since CT scan has already been done so MRI is not that useful. Option D- useful as it can enable us to see the hormones produced by the tumor.
Category:
Medicine
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now