A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
💡 Explanation
A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: C. Wide local excision with a 2-cm margin and sentinel lymph node biopsy
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