A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Correct Answer: Wide local excision with a 2-cm margin and sentinel lymph node biopsy
Description: Melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm is managed with a wide local excision with a 2-cm margin. Wide local excision for malignant melanoma with thickness: < 1 mm - 1 cm margin, 1-4 mm - 2 cm margin, > 4 mm - 2 to 3 cm margin This should be followed by sentinel lymph node biopsy. It is the first node that drains a paicular nodal basin. It is identified by: intra-operative injection of blue dye. preoperative injection of 99m Tc sulphur colloid around the lesion and detection with a gamma counter intraoperatively. If this comes positive, it is followed by a complete lymph node (LN) dissection. Malignant Melanoma is a radio-resistant tumor.
Category:
Surgery
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now