A 43-year-old man is seen in his physician’s office for severe pain in the perineum. Examination reveals exquisite tenderness in the area to the right side of the anal verge due to a perianal abscess. Rectal examination is refused. What should be the next step in management?

Surgery

A 43-year-old man is seen in his physician’s office for severe pain in the perineum. Examination reveals exquisite tenderness in the area to the right side of the anal verge due to a perianal abscess. Rectal examination is refused. What should be the next step in management?

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Specific for Ankylosing spondylitis is true?