A 42-year-old woman presents with a swollen, painful, erythematous left breast which does not respond to a 10-day course of oxacillin. Ultrasound reveals no abscess. The next step in management should be:

Surgery

A 42-year-old woman presents with a swollen, painful, erythematous left breast which does not respond to a 10-day course of oxacillin. Ultrasound reveals no abscess. The next step in management should be:

A tender swelling in submandibular triangle is mostly likely diagnosed as

In transfacial proportions, the face Is divided into how many segments:

Specific for Ankylosing spondylitis is true?