A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of:-
Correct Answer: Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
Description: The patient had a manic episode in past and currently he is in severe depression. The complete diagnosis would be bipolar disorder. hence, this patient should receive both mood stabilizers and antidepressants.
Category:
Psychiatry
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now