A 40-year-old intravenous drug user presents to the emergency depament with a 2 days history of right knee pain with associated swelling and erythema. The patient is febrile with a holosystolic murmur at the right lower sternal border. Complete blood count reveals leukocytosis. Blood and synol fluid cultures are sent, and broad-spectrum antibiotics are staed. Synol fluid analysis is pending. What is the most likely pathogen causing these symptoms
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Description: Gram-positive bacteria remain the most common cause of septic ahritis. Staphylococcus aureus accounts for the majority of culture-positive septic ahritis, especially within ceain patient subgroups such as hemodialysis patients and intravenous drug abusers. The predominance of S. aureus in septic ahritis has remained unchanged for many years.
Category:
Orthopaedics
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