A 40-year-old female presents with multiple lytic bone lesions, fracture clavicle and periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Orthopaedics

A 40-year-old female presents with multiple lytic bone lesions, fracture clavicle and periosteal resorption of 2nd and 3rd metatarsals. What is the most likely diagnosis?

What is the use of the given instrument:

Which fracture results in the given deformity?

Positive pivot shift test in knee is because of injury to -