A 34-year-old woman has a routine Pap smear for the first time. The results indicate that dysplastic cells are present, consistent with a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), also called cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) III. She is referred to a gynecologist, who performs colposcopy and takes multiple cervical biopsy specimens that all show CIN III. The conization of the cervix shows a focus of micro invasion at the squamocolumnar junction. Based on these findings, what is the next most likely step in treating this patient?
A 34-year-old woman has a routine Pap smear for the first time. The results indicate that dysplastic cells are present, consistent with a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), also called cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) III. She is referred to a gynecologist, who performs colposcopy and takes multiple cervical biopsy specimens that all show CIN III. The conization of the cervix shows a focus of micro invasion at the squamocolumnar junction. Based on these findings, what is the next most likely step in treating this patient?
π‘ Explanation
A 34-year-old woman has a routine Pap smear for the first time. The results indicate that dysplastic cells are present, consistent with a high-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion (HSIL), also called cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) III. She is referred to a gynecologist, who performs colposcopy and takes multiple cervical biopsy specimens that all show CIN III. The conization of the cervix shows a focus of micro invasion at the squamocolumnar junction. Based on these findings, what is the next most likely step in treating this patient?
β Correct Answer: C. No further therapy
π€ Share this MCQ
Share Card Preview
π 1080x1080 square card β fills the full width in WhatsApp and Telegram