A 32 year old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 39 weeks gestation comes the labor and delivery ward with painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. Examination shows that her cervix is 5 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal hea rate is in the 130s and reactive. She is given meperidine for pain control. She progresses rapidly and less than 2 hours later she delivers a 3.345Kg male fetus. The one-minute APGAR score is 1 and the infant is making little respiratory effo. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 32 year old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 39 weeks gestation comes the labor and delivery ward with painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. Examination shows that her cervix is 5 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal hea rate is in the 130s and reactive. She is given meperidine for pain control. She progresses rapidly and less than 2 hours later she delivers a 3.345Kg male fetus. The one-minute APGAR score is 1 and the infant is making little respiratory effo. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
💡 Explanation
A 32 year old woman, gravida 4, para 3, at 39 weeks gestation comes the labor and delivery ward with painful contractions. Her prenatal course was unremarkable. Examination shows that her cervix is 5 cm dilated, 100% effaced and the fetal hea rate is in the 130s and reactive. She is given meperidine for pain control. She progresses rapidly and less than 2 hours later she delivers a 3.345Kg male fetus. The one-minute APGAR score is 1 and the infant is making little respiratory effo. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: C. Naloxone
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