A 32-year-old female, asymptomatic, not requiring blood transfusion, presents with Hb 13.0 gm/dl. Her HbF levels are 95%, HbA2, 1.5%. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis –
Correct Answer: Hereditary persistence of fetal hemoglobin
Description: <p>In contrast to alpha thalassemia ,gene deletion rarely ever causes beta thalassemia & is only seen in an entity called hereditary persistence of foetal hemoglobin (HPFH).</p><p>In the given case scenario ,HbA2 is within normal limit (1.5-3.5%) in contrast to thalassemia where the HbA2 will be increased .</p><p>Reference :Harsh mohan textbook of pathology sixth edition pg no 322.</p>
Category:
Medicine
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now