A 25-year-old married male presents with infertility. He had undergone retroperitoneal lymph node dissection at age of 15 years for embryonal carcinoma of right testis. Semen analysis shows-quantity-0.5 ml, no. sperm, no fructose. Biopsy of testis shows normal spermatogenesis. Best treatment here would be –
Correct Answer: Microtesticular aspiration and intracyto plasmic injection
Description: The absence of sperms in presence of normal spermatogenesis along with absence of fructose is suggestive of an obstruction in the ejaculatory duct.
"Sperm aspiration techniques are indicated in men in whom the transport of sperm is not possible because the ductal system is absent or surgically unreconstructable. Aspiration procedures can involve microsurgery to collect sperm from the sperm reservoirs within the genital tract (vas deferens, epididymis or testicle)" - Smith's Urology 17/e, p 710
Micro testicular aspiration of sperm with In Vitro Fertilization can help this couple to achieve pregnancy. (Intracytoplasmic injection is a form of IVF)
Category:
Surgery
Get More
Subject Mock Tests
Practice with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects and improve your knowledge.
Attempt a mock test nowMock Exam
Take an exam with 100 random questions selected from all subjects to test your knowledge.
Coming SoonGet More
Subject Mock Tests
Try practicing mock tests with over 200,000 questions from various medical subjects.
Attempt a mock test now