Medical MCQ-A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

A 25 year old male gives history of sudden painless loss of vision in one eye for the past 2 weeks. There is no history of trauma. On examination the anterior segment is normal but there is no fundal glow. Which one of the following is the most likely cause?

Vitreous haemorrhage

Optic atrophy

Developmental cataract

Acute attack of angle closure glaucoma

Question Category:

Ophthalmology

Correct Answer:

Vitreous haemorrhage

Description:

Ans. (a) Vitreous hemorrhageRef: Kanski 7/e, p. 730Sudden painless loss of vision with absence of fundal glow and a normal anterior chamber, in absence of trauma (spontaneous) is consistent with a diagnosis of spontaneous vitreous hemorrhage.Vitreous hemorrhageSudden painless loss of visionOptic atrophyGradual painless loss of visionDevelopmental cataractGradual painless loss of visionAcute angle closure glaucomaSudden painful loss of vision

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