A 23-year old patient diagnosed with stage IA malignant ovarian germ cell tumor. Which of the following would be the standard treatment-
Correct Answer: Unilateral oophorectomy followed by chemotherapy
Description: Approximately 50% to 70% of Germ cell malignancies are stage 1. Since she is a young patient, Feility-sparing surgery ( USO ) is done Almost All germ cell malignancies require Postoperative Chemotherapy.
Category:
Gynaecology & Obstetrics
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