A 20-year-old man with Marfan syndrome is having back pain. On examination, there is a curvature of his thoracic spine to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 20-year-old man with Marfan syndrome is having back pain. On examination, there is a curvature of his thoracic spine to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
💡 Explanation
A 20-year-old man with Marfan syndrome is having back pain. On examination, there is a curvature of his thoracic spine to the left. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
✓ Correct Answer: C. mechanical back bracing
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