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5986 Surgery

A 45-year-old woman presents with a pigmented lesion on her right thigh. She undergoes an incisional biopsy which reveals malignant melanoma with a thickness of 3 mm. Findings on examination of the groin are normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

AWide local excision with a 1-cm margin, followed by radiotherapy
BWide local excision with a 1-cm margin and groin lymph node dissection
CWide local excision with a 2-cm margin and sentinel lymph node biopsy (Correct Answer)
DWide local excision with a 2-cm margin and groin lymph node dissection
5990 Surgery