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4618 Surgery

A 43-year-old man is seen in his physician’s office for severe pain in the perineum. Examination reveals exquisite tenderness in the area to the right side of the anal verge due to a perianal abscess. Rectal examination is refused. What should be the next step in management?

ADrainage of the abscess in the office under local anesthesia. (Correct Answer)
BExcision of the vertical fold of Morgagni.
CDrainage under general anesthesia and immediate colonoscopy.
DCT scan of the abdomen.
4623 Surgery
4625 Surgery
4626 Surgery

A 64-year-old man presents with headache and left-sided upper extremity weakness. The MRI findings suggest that this is a glioblastoma multiforme. This is because the tumor exhibits which of the following?

AIt is regular in shape.
BIt is well demarcated from surrounding brain tissue.
CIt shows a ring pattern of enhancement with intravenous contrast and has a non-enhancing necrotic center. (Correct Answer)
DIt shows an absence of surrounding white-matter edema.