Showing 10306 questions
Sort:
7765 Gynaecology & Obstetrics

A 54-yrs-old woman undergoes a laparotomy because of a pelvic mass. At exploratory laparotomy, a unilateral ovarian neoplasm is discovered that is accompanied by a large omental metastasis. Frozen section diagnosis confirms metastatic serous cystadenocarcinoma. The most appropriate intraoperative course of action is:-

AExcision of the omental metastasis and ovarian cystectomy
BOmentectomy and ovarian cystectomy
CExcision of the omental metastasis and unilateral oophorectomy
DOmentectomy, total abdominal hysterectomy, and bilateral salpingo oophorectomy (Correct Answer)