Gynaecology & Obstetrics | Mcq Subjects |

Mcq Subject: Gynaecology & Obstetrics

A Ranitidine

B Pilocarpine

C Latanoprost

D Dorzolamide

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A Placenta accreta

B Couvelaire uterus

C Atonic uterus with uncontrolled PPH

D Rupture uterus

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A 46 XY

B 46 XX

C 23 Y

D 23 X

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A Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome

B Partial androgen insensitivity syndrome

C Mayer Rokitansky Kuster Hauser syndrome

D Gonadal dysgenesis

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A Gynaecoid pelvis

B Anthropoid pelvis

C Android pelvis

D Platypelloid pelvis

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A Mid stream collection

B Suprapubic puncture

C Catheterisation

D Early morning sample

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A Deutoplasm

B Secretions from wall of fallopian tube and uterus

C Sperm carbohydrate stores

D All the above

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A TORCH infections

B SLE

C Rh incompatibility

D Syphilis

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A LPT

B DCT

C Kleinhauser test

D Indirect coombs

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A Turner's syndrome

B Mixed gonadal dysgenesis

C Mayer Rokitansky kuster Hauser syndrome

D Androgen insensitivity syndrome

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Mcq Subject: Gynaecology & Obstetrics

Which of the following drug is category B (adequate studies in pregnant woman have failed to demonstrate a fetal risk)?

Indications for cesarean hysterectomy are all except:

Secondary oocyte consists of

A young female presented to you with primary amenorrhea. Examination reveals normal breast development and absent axillary hairs. Pelvic examination shows a normally developed vagina with clitoromegaly. On ultrasound, gonads are visible in the inguinal region. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Which type of pelvis is associated with increased incidence of ‘face to pubis’ delivery:

Urine is collected for examination in a pregnant female by :

Zygote is dependent on which of the following for its nutrition –

All of the following are known causes of recurrent aboion, except:

Best test to quantify’ feto-maternal haemorrhage in Rh isoimmunisation is –

A 21 years female of 143 cm height present primary amenorrhea, absent breast, Cubitus valgus. Most probable diagnosis is?

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